mrcog part 2 pastpapers 1997-2001 pastpapers answers

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mrcog part 2 pastpapers 1997-2001 pastpapers answers

Post  Admin on Fri Feb 29, 2008 12:37 pm

March 1997
Achondroplasia:
1. Is the most common lethal chondrodysplasia. (T)
2. Can be excluded by a normal femur length measured by ultrasound at 18 weeks of pregnancy. (F)
3. Is associated with polyhydramnios. (F)
4. Is not associated with mental retardation. (T)

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Phenytoin:
1. Is best administered by intramuscular injection. (F)
2. Has a short biological half life. (F)
3. Is rapidly absorbed from intestinal tract. (F)
4. Is metabolized by the liver. (T)

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Neonatal jaundice appearing on the 3rd day and still present at 2 weeks of age may be due to:
1. Haemolytic disease of the newborn due to rhesus incompatibility. (F)
2. Galactosaemia. (T)
3. Phenylketonuria. (T)
4. Neonatal hyperthyroidism. (F)

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Analysis of a sample of amniotic fluid obtained by amniocentesis assists in the diagnosis of:
1. Tay - Sachs disease. (T)
2. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia. (T)
3. Spina bifida occulta. (F)
4. Oesophogeal atresia. (F)

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The following disease are inherited as autosomal recessive traits:
1. Pseudohypertrophic (Duchenne) muscular dystrophy. (F)
2. Cystic fibrosis. (T)
3. Haemophilia. (F)
4. Phenylketonuria. (T)
5. Congenital spherocytosis. (F)

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Factors predisposing to maternal pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents during labour include:
1. An increase in gastric motility. (F)
2. The effect of progesterone on the cardiac sphincter. (T)
3. Epidural analgesia. (F)
4. The use of muscle relaxant. (F)

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Intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy is characteristically associated with:
1. Elevated serum concentrations of the direct bilirubin fraction. (T)
2. A positive direct coomb's test in the neonate. (F)
3. Elevated serum acid phosphatase activity. (F)

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The following concerning preterm labour are correct:
1. Maternal administration of steroids is contraindicated in cases with prolonged rupture of membranes. (F)
2. Women with history of subfertility have an increased risk. (T)
3. Babies weighing between 500-1000 grams should be delivered by caesarean section. (F)

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Severe pregnancy induced hypertension is characteristically associated with :
1. A reduced uric acid clearance. (T)
2. Abnormally high maternal concentrations of serum cortisol. (F)
3. Hypernatraemia. (F)
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Complications arising during the administration of ritodrine are more likely when there is:
1. Maternal anaemia less than 9g/dl. (T)
2. Rupture of membranes. (F)
3. Maternal diabetes. (T)

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Rubella infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is associated with a subsequent increased risk of:
1. Phocomelia. (T)
2. IUGR. (T)
3. Oligohydramnios. (F)
4. Neonatal purpura. (T)

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In a prospective study of a possible new method of antenatal screening for a particular fetal disorder, 60,000 consecutive pregnant women were recruited and tested. 100 of the fetuses were found to be affected. The test had a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%. Based on this study the following statements are correct :
1. A woman with a positive test has a 10% chance of having an affected child. (F)
2. The results demonstrate that the test fulfils the criteria set by the WHO for screening. (F)
3. 95% of affected cases had a positive screening test. (F)
4. The negative predictive rate can be calculated from the data provided. (F)
5. The false positive rate can be calculated using Fisher's exact test. (F)

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Nuchal translucency:
1. Is more obvious at 8 weeks than 11 weeks of gestation. (F)
2. Is diagnostic of a chromosomal abnormality. (F)
3. Is a marker for a neural tube defect. (F)

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Cerebral palsy may only be attributed to intrapartum events if:
1. The neonate exhibits signs of moderate or severe ischaemic encephalopathy with hypoxic injury to other organs. (T)
2. The neurological condition can only be explained by intrapartum events. (T)
3. There is evidence of prolonged intrapartum asphyxia. (T)
4. Other causes have been excluded by computed tomography or MRI. (T)

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With regard to fetal growth and birth weight:
1. A high carbohydrate intake in early pregnancy suppresses placental growth. (T)
2. A high intake of iron and folate supplements in the late pregnancy is associated with higher birth weight. (F)
3. There is a significant association between fetal and placental weight. (T)

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The following are recognized to be of proven benefit:
1. Appropriate antibiotic treatment during labour to women with current beta-haemolytic streptococcal colonization of the vagina. (T)
2. Administration of anti-D immunoglobulin to rhesus-negative women at 28-34 weeks of gestation. (T)
3. External cephalic version after 36 completed weeks. (T)
4. Immunotherapy with paternal leucocytes to prevent recurrent miscarriage. (F)
5. Elective forceps delivery for preterm birth. (F)

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Features of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy include:
1. Activation of factor VII. (T)
2. The appearance of free plasmin in the circulation. (T)
3. Reversal of the process by transfusion of stored whole blood. (F)

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In a pregnant women over the age of 35 there is a recognized increase in the :
1. Incidence of pregnancy prolonged beyond 40 weeks gestation. (F)
2. Frequency of multiple pregnancy. (T)
3. Incidence of maternal hyperthyroidism. (F)
.


Jaundice is a recognized feature of the following conditions of the newborn:
1. Sickle cell disease. (F)
2. Beta-thalassaemia. (F)
3. Cytomegalovirus infection. (T)
4. Congenital spherocytosis. (T)

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Features of sickle cell haemoglobin disease in pregnancy include:
1. A characteristic association with anaemia. (T)
2. Splenomegaly. (F)
3. Fat embolus. (T)
4. Infarction of bone. (T)

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Congenital rubella syndrome in the neonate:
1. Is likely to follow accidental vaccination of the mother with rubella vaccine in the first trimester. (F)
2. Commonly includes patent ductus arteriosus. (T)
3. May result in excretion of the rubella virus for more than 6 months. (T)
4. Includes intracranial calcification. (F)
5. Includes neonatal purpura. (T)

.


The following statements relating to toxoplasmosis and pregnancy are correct:
1. Severe disease in the fetus is most likely to occur if the mother acquires infection during the 1st 2 trimesters of pregnancy. (T)
2. Among mothers known to have acquired toxoplasmosis during the first trimester, the spontaneous abortion rate is above 20%. (F)
3. If antibodies are present before conception, the fetus will be unaffected. (T)

.


Intravenous ergometrine when given as a bolus for the 3rd stage of labour is characteristically associated with:
1. A fall in mean arterial blood pressure. (F)
2. A rise in peripheral resistance. (T)
3. Vomiting. (T)
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The following conditions are characteristically associated with a reduction in uteroplacental blood flow:
1. Maternal respiratory alkalosis. (T)
2. The 2nd stage of labour. (T)
3. Maternal pulmonary hypertension. (T)
4. Cord presentation. (F)

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Eye damage is a recognized consequence of fetal infection with:
1. Treponema pallidum. (T)
2. Toxoplasma gondii. (T)
3. Epstein-Barr virus. (F)

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With a breech presentation:
1. The risk of a significant congenital anomaly at 30 weeks is less than 5%. (F)
2. The incidence is greater with delivery at the 30th week than at 38 weeks of gestation. (T)
3. Congenital hip dislocation is unrelated to route of delivery. (T)
4. A boy is more at risk of congenital hip dislocation than is a girl. (F)

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An increased risk of fetal malformation is associated with:
1. Poliomyelitis vaccine administration in early pregnancy. (F)
2. Diagnostic amniocentesis. (T)
3. Warfarin sodium administration. (F)
4. Smoking 20 cigarettes or more a day. (F)
5. Rubella vaccination in the first trimester of pregnancy. (F)

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A previously normotensive primigravidas has developed a blood pressure of 150/100mmHg and 4g of proteinuria per 24 hours. The following findings would be consistent with the above:
1. Loss of diurnal variation in blood pressure. (F)
2. A creatinine clearance of 120-150 ml/minute. (F)
3. Hyperreflexia. (T)
4. A raised concentration of fibrin degradation products. (T)
5. Epigastric pain. (T)

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In the management of the infant with suspected rhesus haemolytic disease:
1. A positive maternal Kleihauer test indicates the need for exchange transfusion. (F)
2. The mature infant is more susceptible than premature to kernicterus. (F)

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The secretion of breast milk is decreased by administration of:
1. Metoclopramide. (F)
2. Warfarin sodium. (F)
3. Methadone. (F)
4. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate. (F)

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Acute inversion of the uterus:
1. Is a recognized complication of ergometrine administration. (F)
2. Is a recognized consequence of genital prolapse. (F)

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The following conditions would be expected to conform with the pattern of inheritance shown in figure 1:
1. Achondroplasia. (T)
2. Phenylketonuria. (F)
3. Neurofibromatosis. (T)
4. Cystic fibrosis. (F)
5. Myotonic dystrophy. (F)


M=normal male, (M)=affected male, F=normal female, (F)=affected female
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onadotrophin secretion is above normal at the time of gross weight loss. (F)
3. Clomiphene citrate stimulation tests are usually negative. (T)

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Following vasectomy:
1. Plasma testosterone concentration shows a significant decline in the first six month. (F)
2. There is a positive correlation with subsequent gall bladder disease. (F)
3. The failure rate is approximately 2/1000. (T)
4. Sperm antibodies develop in at least 40% of patients. (T)
5. Epididymo-orchitis is the most common immediate side effect. (F)

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Anovulation is characteristically associated with:
1. Dysmenorrhoea. (F)
2. Endometriosis. (F)
3. Premenstrual tension. (F)
4. Chronic renal failure. (T)

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Recognized causes of postmenopausal bleeding include:
1. Preinvasive carcinoma of the cervix. (F)
2. Benign teratoma of the ovary. (F)
3. Atrophic vaginitis. (T)
4. Hepatic cirrhosis. (T)
5. Phaeochromocytoma. (F)

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Recognized complications of intrauterine contraceptive devices include:
1. Spontaneous expulsion in 30% during the 1st 3 months following insertion. (F)
2. An increased incidence of endometriosis. (F)

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The following statements concerning intestinal obstruction are correct:
1. Gas demonstrated radiologically throughout the small and large bowel is a feature of paralytic ileus. (T)
2. Obstruction due to Crohn's disease is not commonly associated with pain. (F)
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There is an increased risk of endometrial carcinoma in a patient who has:
1. A past history of habitual abortion. (F)
2. A granulosa cell tumour of the ovary. (T)
3. An early menopause. (F)
4. Never had a cervical smear. (F)
5. Had immunosuppressive therapy. (F)

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Recognized complications of gynaecological laparoscopy include:
1. Puncture of common iliac blood vessels. (F)
2. Surgical emphysema. (T)
3. Haemoperitoneum. (T)
4. Damage to the anterior division of the lumbosacral plexus. (F)
5. Puncture of the inferior Epigastric artery. (T)

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A 30 year old woman, who had been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for 4 years, stopped it 1 year ago, as she wished to become pregnant. Since then, her periods have occurred every 9-12 weeks. On examination, she is thin and anxious. She measures 1.52 m in height an weighs 41.5Kg, with BMI 18 (normal range 19-26). On examination, the abdomen and pelvis are normal. Her partner has a normal semen analysis. In relation to this patient, the following statements are correct :
1. The delay in conception is likely to be significantly related to her long term use of the contraceptive pill. (F)
2. Significant weight gain is likely to restore a regular menstrual cycle. (T)
3. HMG (Human menopausal gonadotrophin) therapy is the treatment of choice. (F)
4. Ovarian biopsy should be carried out at the time of laparoscopy. (F)

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In stage IIb carcinoma of the cervix:
1. The peak incidence is at 55-65 years of age. (T)
2. Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice. (T)
3. Less than 20% of patients will have lymph node involvement. (F)
4. Lymphangiography is helpful in the clinical staging. (F)

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In the androgen insensitivity syndrome (testicular feminisation):
1. Infrequent scanty menstrual cycle may occur. (F)
2. Body hair distribution is of the male type. (F)
3. A familial incidence is recognised. (T)

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Recognized features of Turner syndrome include:
1. Coarctation of the aorta. (T)
2. Elevated serum gonadotrophin concentration. (T)
3. A normal female karyotype. (F)
4. Red green colour blindness. (T)
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The level of serum prolactin is:
1. Increased by exogenous Thyrotrophin releasing hormone. (T)
2. Increased by acromegaly. (T)
3. Depressed by levodopa administration. (T)
4. Increased by ergometrine administration. (F)

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Characteristics of atypical endometrial hyperplasia include:
1. Secretory changes in the endometrium. (F)
2. Ovulatory cycles. (F)
3. Hirsutism. (F)
4. Premenstrual tension. (F)
5. An association with uterine fibroids. (F)

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Untreated female genital tuberculosis is characteristically associated with:
1. Recurrent abortion. (F)
2. A primary source of infection in the lung. (T)
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Re: mrcog part 2 pastpapers 1997-2001 pastpapers answers

Post  Dr.Elzubair on Thu Oct 10, 2013 1:07 pm

Dear colleague I need the rest of the answer for the past papers MRCOG part 2 , if you don't mind helping me.thanks a lot

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